Submitted by Resinate1 t3_zyzi9w in Showerthoughts
Future_Seaweed_7756 t1_j28m8y1 wrote
There’s actually more between 1 and 0 than 1 and infinity, I’m not exactly sure on the proof but it’s something to do with how infinite numbers work.
liarandathief t1_j28rfot wrote
Only if, when they say from 1 to infinity they mean integers. There are countably infinite integers, where there are uncountably infinite real numbers.
Phr3nic t1_j2941o3 wrote
There's less Integers between 1 and "infinity" than there are Real numbers between 0 and 1. But there are equally many real numbers between 0 and 1 as there are real numbers between 1 and "infinity"
canucky55 t1_j28nl2k wrote
If I remember correctly, it has to do with rational numbers from one to infinity being countable infinite and the real numbers between 0 and 1 being uncountable infinite. The trick to the proof comes with being able to count rational numbers from smallest to largest (easy to think about with integers but even with rational numbers it's just integers in the numerator and integers in the denominator so just assign a count to the numerator first and the next count to the denomator and it works). for real numbers if you try to count from one number to the next, there will ALWAYS be an number in between those that you missed and should have counted. blew my brain when the professor showed the proof in class.
M8dude t1_j28scze wrote
lemme try.
for every x in R such that 1 < x < infty, there is exactly one number (1/x) in R, s.t. 0 < (1/x) < 1.
also vice versa.
there's a bijection between the two sets, therefore they are the same size.
am i missing something?
unpopular_tooth t1_j28vqfs wrote
TIL the awesome new word “bijection.”
[deleted] t1_j28wghl wrote
[deleted]
unpopular_tooth t1_j291m1g wrote
Oh for fuck sake… Yeah, obviously the word didn’t just get invented. New TO ME, okay? I really didn’t think my wording would confuse anyone.
M8dude t1_j292gvo wrote
oh i thought you were sarcastic, sorry about that..
unpopular_tooth t1_j2af181 wrote
No problem. Jeez, now I feel like a big bijection for blowing up about it.
DooDooSlinger t1_j298nzr wrote
No. The cardinality of any real interval, bounded or unbounded, is the same. You can find a bijection between any of them.
101_210 t1_j28vuun wrote
There is indeed an higher order of infinity for the real numbers between 0 and 1 than integer between 0 and infinity.
The proof (simplified) goes as follow:
For each integer between 0 and infinity (let’s call that number x) you can match it with a number between 0 and 1 that contains a number of 1 after the dot equal to our integer x. So you get:
1 -> 0.1
2->0.11
3->0.111
4->0.1111
etc.
As you can see, going to infinity, we will have two matched sets where every element is different. However, if we add a 2 just after the dot in the real number set, we get 0.21, 0.211, etc, an entirely NEW set, of which no elements were contained in any of our previous sets. There is actually an infinite number of these transformations that can be made to the real set, and none that can be made to the integer set.
The integer set is named a countable infinity, where although there is an unlimited number of element, if you choose two different elements, there is a finite number of elements between them.
The real numbers are an uncountable infinity, where if you chose any two elements, there is still an infinite number of elements between them.
Future_Seaweed_7756 t1_j2e7srg wrote
This makes a lot of sense thank you
Resinate1 OP t1_j28nw3p wrote
Yeah I should’ve said 1 to infinity! Title typo
HereIAmSendMe68 t1_j29ce1l wrote
cantor's diagonal
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