Submitted by AutoModerator t3_ywvph3 in askscience
LiamTheHuman t1_iwm68de wrote
Can someone explain the bell inequality to me in terms of odds of each possibility. I've seen many videos on YouTube that give 3 potential directional measurements(north, south east and south west). They then seem to claim that the odds of getting up down down, up up down and up down up are all the same. This doesn't seem right to me because it seems like you would have equal chance of getting one up as you do of getting two ups together.
I think this is probably an artifact of a simplification but could someone explain the more complex way to get the probabilities and what each one is?
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