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OperationSpringAwake t1_j9f24bq wrote

But it’s happened twice in Iran. First the early 50s and again in 1979?

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Opposite_Match5303 t1_j9f2l9w wrote

How are you reading the 1979 revolution as US pressure leading to the overthrow of the regime?

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OperationSpringAwake t1_j9f3dlo wrote

Well the 50s one was, no? And the US could’ve ended 1979, but decided not to step in.

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Opposite_Match5303 t1_j9f5tpg wrote

Even looking at 1953, supporting 1 side in an internal power struggle is pretty different from the North Korea/Cuba methods you are advocating against Iran. And if the Ayatollah thought he had a credible internal challenger the US could support, it would certainly push him to get a nuke as fast as possible.

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OperationSpringAwake t1_j9g5689 wrote

You said it literally never has - 1953 says otherwise.

In 1979, was it internal though? Khomeini was in France. The US propped up the Shah then took away support. The US could support a govt-in-exile.

If the Ayatollah wanted a nuke, he could get one. He knows doing so would immediately be the end of his country, so he only uses it as threat.

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Opposite_Match5303 t1_j9mkmzv wrote

It wasn't the end of North Korea. Who would attack a country with a nuke?

You're being too unspecific with "it": yes, CIA-caused regime changed happened dozens of times in the last century. Yes, targeted sanctions work for convincing a regime to change concrete policy: the original JCPOA was a great example. But what you're describing is sanctions and external pressure convincing a regime to dissolve its own existence, which has arguably literally never happened (maybe the end of Apartheid in South Africa would count).

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