Economic freedom (Index of Economic Freedom) vs Income inequality (Gini coefficient) in 153 countries [OC]
Submitted by Independent-Ad-514 t3_10tvelu in dataisbeautiful
Reply to comment by SuperTekkers in Economic freedom (Index of Economic Freedom) vs Income inequality (Gini coefficient) in 153 countries [OC] by Independent-Ad-514
It is not random. There is -0.31 correlation
An r of 0.31 is an r^2 of 0.096. Having an r^2 less than 0.4 is hard to make an argument you really have anything
I could generate really random data, and more often than not get something like this correlation out of it.
That is very, very close to random.
These is a r of 0.8 for black and Hispanic population as a percentage to homicide rate.
Would you accept that as causal?
There can be a correlation without there being a direct causal correlation
Yes. That's what the guy above me is talking about. Because the fitness of the line is low, you likely should not put much stake in a low correlation.
> Yes. That's what the guy above me is talking about. Because the fitness of the line is low, you likely should not put much stake in a low correlation.
No, these are different. There can be causation with low correlation. But high levels of correlation doesn't necessitate causation.
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hell yeah B)
I am not American, but I believe that statistics are important and we should pay attention to them.
So how would you solve the crime issue knowing it's single mother and or racial components?
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