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coffeesharkpie t1_j62z0bw wrote

I don't get your interpretation of the t-value and the 10% probability. To the best of my understanding the closer t is to 0, the more likely there isn't a significant difference between both samples. Now to get the p-value of the t-value we would need the number of dfs. But the p-values also don't tell us anything about the actual probabilities, but only how likely your data is, assuming a true null hypothesis (you'd need Bayesian statistics to get actualprobabilities).

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terrykrohe OP t1_j633q99 wrote

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coffeesharkpie t1_j63k7fy wrote

Doesn't help to make clear if you report the t-value or the p-value of a t-test. If it's the t-value, you would at least need to report the related p-value to judge if the mean difference is statistically significant or not. If it is the p-value depending on the chosen alpha level (commonly .05) and depending on if it's one or two-sided, it's likely not statistically different because the value is too high. And if it's the p-value, you would also not interpret this directly as a probability of there being a difference in the means (at least in a Frequentist framework).

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