Viewing a single comment thread. View all comments

Detectiveleht t1_is4np7t wrote

Reply to comment by oratory1990 in Most discriminating audio reviewer by SnooStories7223

I think you’re confusing neutral with popular. If a V-shaped frequency response is the preferred sound signature of most people, then it still isn’t neutral because the bass and treble are amplified.

13

Joulle t1_is58zk1 wrote

It's a little word game at this point. Are we talking about objective neutral or subjective neutral. Even objective neutral could be just harman neutral or a completely flat FR response if you ask me but what do I know, I'm just an enjoyer with limited experience.

Every time someone mentions neutral I'm a bit confused because they might mention a headphone that I don't think is neutral.

How it all sounds to my ears, I think the Hifiman Arya SE and the DT1990 with analytic pads and with oratory's EQ (except not with mount Beyer) are pretty neutral so I guess something like flat lows and mids and the harman treble bump. Arya being more neutral than the Beyers in my opinion.

The hifiman Anandas don't sound neutral to me as their bass is even too "boring", as in lower bass isn't there. Other than their bass, they're neutral in my opinion.

Although maybe I'm mixing my own preferences with neutral here.

2

Detectiveleht t1_is6rp5m wrote

that’s a good point. It all depends on what are you using as the standard or so called “true neutral”. I’m not too experienced in audio matters myself but i felt that i have to point it out, even if it’s wrong. I don’t have the money to invest in some nice cans but i’m an avid ultrabudget iem enjoyer lmao. and a good example imo would be the sony MH755 vs moondrop chu, where MH755 is tuned to the harman target and chu is more of a “true neutral”. for me MH755’s sound signature is a tad bit more enjoyable because i like the boosted subbass. Yet they’re both good iem’s for the money and it all comes down to personal preference.

1

oratory1990 t1_isa21uv wrote

> it still isn’t neutral because the bass and treble are amplified.

That's hypothetical, because the preferred sound of most people is not V-shaped (when given the option).

The word "neutral" comes from latin "ne utrum", meaning "neither of both".
In this context it refers to "neither too little nor too much".

If the average person (in a properly conducted listening test, which is hard to do) prefers a sound, then by definition it is neutrum, meaning it leans neither in one direction nor in the other direction.

0

Detectiveleht t1_isefu9a wrote

>If the average person (in a properly conducted listening test, which is hard to do) prefers a sound, then by definition it is neutrum, meaning it leans neither in one direction nor in the other direction.

This doesn't sound right to me. As far as I understand, neutral sound means that all frequencies are perceived at the same volume. i.e the sound doesn't lean toward one nor in the other direction.

Preferring a sound doesn't make it neutral.

For example. If a person likes their foods sweet then it doesn't mean that sweet is neutral. Sweet is still sweet and neutral means not too sweet nor not too bitter.

To me it seems that you made a mistake and instead of having the courage to admit it, you doubled down.

1

oratory1990 t1_iset0i5 wrote

> neutral sound means that all frequencies are perceived at the same volume. i.e the sound doesn't lean toward one nor in the other direction.

That's exactly it though - you get a rotary button to control the amount of bass, and you get asked to dial it in until it sounds correct, as in "it sounds the way it should sound".
You repeat this with many, many people go get a meaningful average.

"neutral" does not mean "flat on a measurement".

1

Detectiveleht t1_isfefba wrote

it seems this doesn’t lead anywhere so let’s just agree to disagree.

1