Submitted by MagicRaptor t3_xwxaqx in history
extopico t1_ir96m4l wrote
I blame the Dutch. Northern Dutch language sounds like drunken English, or English as I would hear it if I were incoherently drunk.
How the Dutch spread into England and morphed into English? Not sure... there are surely actual answers somewhere in this thread.
K_H007 t1_ir97mty wrote
Trade routes. That's how. Same thing happened to Greek when it became Latin, and to Latin when it became the Romance Languages.
EzraSkorpion t1_ir9aamk wrote
What? Greek never became latin, they're on separate branches of the indo-european language family. Latin became romance languages not by influence via trade routes but because the people in those areas spoke latin natively, which then underwent language change.
TheMooseIsBlue t1_ir9soe4 wrote
I assume he meant “how Greek-speaking lands became Latin-speaking lands,” not that Greek literally evolved into Latin. Though, that’s me being generous since his second point was about how Latin did evolve into others.
K_H007 t1_irdhuy7 wrote
That was actually about what I meant. After all, the roman empire arose from old greek colonies of italy, meaning that greek lands became roman lands, and with rome came latin.
Viewing a single comment thread. View all comments