Submitted by MagicRaptor t3_xwxaqx in history
Tiberius_1919 t1_ira0slh wrote
Reply to comment by AethelweardSaxon in Where did the English language REALLY come from? by MagicRaptor
Honestly English having very little Celtic influence is to be expected and isn’t considered all that unusual, at least not by historians such as N. Higham and J. Davies.
This video goes into more detail on the subject but in short, elite, “high-prestige” and (typically) conquering languages generally do not borrow all that much from the low-level conquered ones. There are exceptions of course, such as French and Gaulish, but for the vast majority of conquering languages it does seem to be the case.
AethelweardSaxon t1_iradiac wrote
Sure, I take your point. But it's not the only reason why am AS invasion is pretty evident, such as the material archeology we have too etc.
Tiberius_1919 t1_iraoes3 wrote
Sure, but I am just talking about the expected influence of Brythonic on Old English, which is an unsurprisingly low amount
MagicRaptor OP t1_iraobmk wrote
Do you have any sources on hand for the material archaeology? Specifically anything that can only be explained by migration instead of just trade?
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