Submitted by herewego199209 t3_z2t0h4 in history
herewego199209 OP t1_ixi0pa8 wrote
Reply to comment by TheaterJon42 in Might be a stupid question, but I've been watching a lot of stuff regarding the Spartan and Persians recently and I always wondered how would these people have communicated back then? Were there specific scholars in both countries that were trained in various languages? by herewego199209
I guess I must be discounting how easy it was to learn these things. I figure it's easier now because you have the internet to research the customs, languages, etc of the country and go from there.
aaronupright t1_ixlbpom wrote
My office manager in Pakistan has a 10th grade education. His earlier profession was as a guy incharge of deliveries for logistics company so he travelled a lot. He speaks 6 languages.
Only in the US,UK, Australia etc is multilingualism a sign of education. In most places it's standard.
Zephrok t1_ixluhpo wrote
Yep, because english is all you need in the west. Learning anither language is extra work.
aaronupright t1_ixlwy68 wrote
Don't know about "anither" language, but another language isn't particularly hard.
OldWierdo t1_ixj3m6v wrote
It's not that it's easy, it's that it was necessary and you had some decent job opportunities. Hate backbreaking work of farming where you might break even? Learn a language from traveling salesmen and entertainers.Go tell a wealthy merchant you've got a language you think he could use, how much? Bam, you aren't a farmer anymore.
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