Submitted by TheMajesticMoose08 t3_zdakne in massachusetts
EugenioFV t1_iz0me9g wrote
The amount of bathrooms is controlled by the occupant load of the building. Step 1 would be to determine the amount of "fixtures" needed for the building by taking into account all occupants, this is determined by use and square footage, not by people in each office. From there that is divided in half between mens and womens. There are exceptions where you can have unisex bathrooms, which is allowed.
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My guess here is, the building is seriously under designed, not enough bathrooms. You can always speak with a professional to calculate this, and negotiate with the buildings owner.
tippytaps20 t1_iz2n09v wrote
Professional who does this kind of calc for my job - basically you use calculate the occupant load (or a program load where the egress load seems high), then go to 248 CMR: 10.00 Uniform Plumbing Code. Split that occupant load - 1/2 designated female, 1/2 designated male. 248 CMR Section 10.10(18) Table 1 give you the fixture factor based on the type of occupancy. Generally in offices it’s 1 per 20 for females and 1 per 25 for males.
Say in his building, the occupant load is 40 total - 20 female, 20 male. This would translate needing at least one fixture for each gender. Since the building likely small, all the bathrooms are permitted to be located on the first floor as long it’s only a 2 story building and a person upstairs doesn’t have to travel more than 300 ft from the most remote point on the 2nd floor to the bathroom.
248 CMR Section 10.10(18)(j)(1) requires establishments provide designated bathrooms for male and female employees. Over the past few years, the Plumbing Board has been approving variances that allow for gender neutral bathrooms - it’s not explicitly permitted in the current edition of 248 CMR, but the Board has no opposition to it, it’s just a formality. I believe there is another subsection in Section 10.10(18) that allows for a 1-to-1 substitution for required fixtures for males/females with gender-neutral single user bathrooms.
For OP’s situation, the designation of the bathrooms probably goes back to when the space was built/last updated. The designated single user bathrooms probably remains if the building owner didn’t want the headache of applying for a variance, didn’t know it was an option, or it was last updated when the climate wasn’t as friendly to gender-neutral single user bathrooms.
[deleted] t1_iz2ud1y wrote
[deleted]
you-mistaken t1_iz4sae2 wrote
the code book sounds like it need to update the term gender to sex. like " gender designated tiolet fixture" ones gender doesn't decide what type of tiolet fixture they would need thier sex would.
know what I mean , there are those in the woman gender who could still use a urinal.
but I dont think gender exists anyway its a false social delusion that hopefully we get passed one day and everything is genderless.
Graywulff t1_iz1yrnl wrote
There should be two bathrooms on each floor at least. Then having to come downstairs isn’t right.
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