Submitted by asharif_ t3_11ayckc in nottheonion
flamableozone t1_j9zf3c8 wrote
Reply to comment by brotherenigma in Jewish patients felt victimized by artwork made by Gazzan children by asharif_
Germany didn't exist until after the unification of east and west germany, which didn't exist until after WW2, does that mean that "Germany" doesn't exist? The Czech Republic didn't exist until 1992, does that mean that it doesn't exist? The fact that something exists *now* means that it exists now, regardless of whether or not it used to.
brotherenigma t1_j9zhdes wrote
There's a difference - there is at least a shared ethnic, linguistic, and cultural heritage that connects a lot of those former Germanic kingdoms and princely states. Also, that union, although quite politically charged as well, had nothing to do with religion and everything to do with the economy. Many people who had been previously displaced actually got reunited with family across the Wall.
Palestine, on the other hand, has ALWAYS been a religious battleground. Not once in its 2000+ year history has there been peace in the Holy Land. And instead of making it not just a Holy Land in name but also in law where Jews, Christians, AND Muslims could all make a pilgrimage to and find peace in prayer, the British, in their infinite wisdom, chose to make it an EXCLUSIVELY Jewish state with no regard for those who already lived there. There was no question of unification or integration or any of that. Same with Partition in India. It was COMPLETELY arbitrary.
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