JiN88reddit

JiN88reddit t1_iza1a2k wrote

Reply to Ask Anything Wednesday - Physics, Astronomy, Earth and Planetary Science by AutoModerator

Is there such a thing as a universal minimum speed?

We know from Einstein special general relativity that the speed of light is the max speed achievable so I'm wondering if it works the opposite as well. And I don't mean when speed = 0, since that would imply the energy/mass simply does not exist.

The only other thing I can think of is 0 Kelvin, which the lowest possible of energy. 0 Kelvin is also, in fact, also impossible to achieve as well.

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JiN88reddit t1_iyben05 wrote

Reply to Eli5: How do people get those absolutely gigantic LG TVs in their house after it was built? by PhychologicalEgg

There are a lot of ways from having an already existing big door (but rarely used) so you can move things in.

Or windows.

Or some clever maneuvering, like multiple pivot points etc..

In most cases the homeowner should be keenly aware HOW to get something big in in the first place.

Worse case...sledgehammer.

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JiN88reddit t1_iyb0lm8 wrote

Reply to ELI5 why we first multiply, then add by TheManNamedPeterPan

>or is it just a convention we just agreed on?

Pretty much. It's called PEMDAS.

You could, in your daily life, go against it BUT you would need to be consistent with it. So does everyone.

You could do it with numbers (the symbols) just as long as the flow of logic is consistent.

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JiN88reddit t1_iwlsozs wrote

Reply to Ask Anything Wednesday - Engineering, Mathematics, Computer Science by AutoModerator

This may be more of a political question than a math question:

Is it even possible to "copyright" a mathematical theorem, or any proofs, for that matter? Considering something like a^2 +b^2 = c^2 can be proven by anyone in any number of ways through flow of logic, would it even be a futile attempt?

And to take it a step further: what will happen IF something like the Pythagorean theorem is being copyrighted?

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