Mikiemax80
Mikiemax80 OP t1_jaf4g9l wrote
Reply to comment by its-a-throw-away_ in ELI5: In math - when we say the probability of something occurring over “infinite” time is 1, does that not completely ignore intervening events that cause the probability to be 0. by Mikiemax80
Thank you for your reply. That makes sense - it being a bounded set vs an infinite set.
Mikiemax80 t1_jaf3564 wrote
It’s incredible I think I just posted a very similar question to this without having actually seen this until after I posted. What are the odds of that 😂
Mikiemax80 OP t1_jaf4nbw wrote
Reply to comment by khalamar in ELI5: In math - when we say the probability of something occurring over “infinite” time is 1, does that not completely ignore intervening events that cause the probability to be 0. by Mikiemax80
Ok, thanks for your reply. I understand how you explained it and it’s very similar to the previous poster’s comparison of a bounded vs infinite set.
Also I definitely don’t want to live forever cos I don’t want to be hit by a train 😂