ScienceIsSexy420
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6huoi6 wrote
Reply to comment by Anticyclonic_Comrade in eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
This
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6hszv3 wrote
Reply to comment by torsun_bryan in eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
No, I'm a scientist, so I listen to what the data says
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6hrtrl wrote
Reply to comment by torsun_bryan in eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
Anicdotal evidence is not peer reviewed research. Many, many studies have found no such thing as a sugar rush, regardless of what you think of your four year old.
https://www.reddit.com/r/explainlikeimfive/comments/10p0lcj/z/j6hrn6g
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6hrn6g wrote
Reply to comment by timenspacerrelative in eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6hrijt wrote
Reply to comment by timenspacerrelative in eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
Yes but that's different than a sugar rush. Increasing the blood sugar levels doesn't energize you, if it did Starbucks wouldn't sell coffee they'd sell sugar shots.
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6hqp2f wrote
Reply to comment by Ghostdr1 in eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
The sugar rush theory is a myth https://elemental.medium.com/there-is-no-such-thing-as-a-sugar-rush-d4ec638e1d67
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6hqmri wrote
Reply to comment by timenspacerrelative in eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
What was Twix supposed to do?
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6hq7cu wrote
Reply to eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
There's been a longstanding old wives tale that sugary food makes children energetic, giving them a sugar rush. We're this to be true, it would make putting your children to bed more difficult, but there is no such thing
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j5l2z5v wrote
Reply to comment by breckenridgeback in Eli5: do noble gases really have full valence shells by 321ECRAB123
Which is why the transition metals start in the fourth period, but utilize the 3d orbital
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j4xzdyz wrote
Reply to comment by Alittlebitmorbid in I have just been told that A, tests markers for blood tests and health checks etc (I dunno… testosterone, cholesterol, red blood cells) in the population are changing over time, and that B, the acceptable levels for such markers are changing with them. Is this true? by rsbanham
My pleasure! As an added bonus that you didn't ask for at all, did you know that consumption of dietary cholesterol, and elevated endogenous cholesterol levels, are not well correlated? We don't really know what causes elevated cholesterol levels, but there's not much evidence that suggests that diet is a large contributing factor. Conversely, consumption of excess lipids can cause hyperlipidea.
Also, I labeled the good and bad cholesterol incorrectly in my previous comment, but I fixed it now. LDL=bad, HDL=good
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j4w5jm3 wrote
Reply to comment by Alittlebitmorbid in I have just been told that A, tests markers for blood tests and health checks etc (I dunno… testosterone, cholesterol, red blood cells) in the population are changing over time, and that B, the acceptable levels for such markers are changing with them. Is this true? by rsbanham
You're point about testing methods is a great one, and I was going to make that point myself. I work as a chemist refining the next generation of testing methods, and when we use a new method we need to do large numbers of cohort studies, to document the normal ranges with the new methodology. A new methodology may make the averages go down, and it doesn't mean that everyone magically got healthier, it just means this new test is different.
I do have to be my naturally pedantic self and point out that there are not two kind of cholesterol. What you are referring to are actually called lipoproteins, for the life of my I don't know why we call them cholesterol but it's of course not just you. Cholesterol levels are an entirely different test, and there is only a single kind of cholesterol, called cholesterol. Lipoproteins are responsible for collecting, depositing, and moving around all of your lipids (triacylglycerides and cholesterol) throughout your body. HDL lipoprotein tend to play a role in the deposition of fats, especially arterial cholesterol, (which is why we call them "bad") while LDL lipoproteins tend to help to remove such deposits (why they are the "good" cholesterol). Importantly though, neither is actually a kind of cholesterol, of which there is only one (okay one natural cholesterol, I actually used to work in a synthesis lab where we specialized in making unusual forms of cholesterol).
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j4hutp1 wrote
Reply to What would happen if we took an organism's DNA, separated each and every couple of DNA that coded for ONE SINGLE PROTEIN and jumbled it up in a different order? by heartless-tramp
For the longest time we didn't know what the purpose of the DNA between genes served. More recently, we have been discovering rhat these non-ncoding sections play important regulatory roles by providing binding sites for promoters, repressers, histones, and other proteins that interact with DNA. For a particular gene to function properly, it not only needs the nucleotide sequence to remain intact, but also for its regulatory functionality to remain the same. Altering the non-coding DNA surrounding a gene will almost certainly change its level of transcription.
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j46v0tj wrote
Reply to comment by skisushi in During digestion, does ethanol react with lipids to form esters, at a significant conversion rate? by spamarind_soda
I'll never forget this question from my Cell Bio final:
Q: what do you call a cell at equilibrium with its environment
A: Dead
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j46v04u wrote
Reply to comment by doaardvarksswim in During digestion, does ethanol react with lipids to form esters, at a significant conversion rate? by spamarind_soda
I'll never forget this question from my Cell Bio final:
Q: what do you call a cell at equilibrium with its environment
A: Dead
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j42hpbb wrote
Reply to comment by [deleted] in Is it possible that people born with genetic disorders is caused because humans are related to eachother in some way? by Skully_o7
Mutations cause genetic disorders, but inbreeding increases the chances of inheriting those mutations. That's why you see things like the prevelance of Tay-Sachs in the Ashkenazi Jew population. Humans are especially vulnerable to inheriting genetic disorders due to inbreeding because of a lack of genetic diversity caused by previous population bottlenecks during prehistoric times.
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j3roja5 wrote
Reply to comment by bubbastars in During digestion, does ethanol react with lipids to form esters, at a significant conversion rate? by spamarind_soda
You'd likely die from dehydration before your endogenous water levels were low enough to push thia reaction to the right enough to form appreciable amount of esters
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j2fm2il wrote
Reply to ELI5: How is QUANTUM superposition mathematically/ontologically possible? Physics ELI5: How is superposition mathematically/ontologically possible? Physics by Forward-Razzmatazz18
Before we talk about what a superposition is, let's talk about where it comes from namely the field of quantum mechanics. In quantom mechanics, outcomes are probably stick rather than deterministic as they are in Newtonian mechanics.
So what the heck did I just say? In Newtonian mechanics, we know exactly what the outcome of an event will be, we just need to calculate for the variables involved. When I throw a ball up in the air, we can predict exactly how high it will go, where it will land, and how fast it be going when it does.
Quantom mechanics is very different. In a quantum mechanical system, the exact outcome of an event is unknown. Using a model that is commonly discussed known as the double slit experiment as an example, when we fire a particle at the double slit we don't know where the particle will land. Instead, what we know are the probabilities of the particle landing at any particular location. There is no guarantee where the particle will land, and every time we repeat the experiment there will be a different result ( more accurately the results will all fall within one of the expected possible outcomes, not that there will be a unique outcome for each individual experiment). This feature is at the very crux of what it means to be a quantum mechanical system. Now, quantom mechanics is very weird (VERY weird), and certain conditions such as observation can cause "the wave function to collapse" ( this is a reference to the Schrodinger wave function, the equation that is used to calculate the probabilities of certain events in a Quantum system) and a quantom system reverts back to a classical/Newtowian system.
Okay, so back to your question. What is a superposition? Well the simplest answer to that is that a superposition is what we call an event that is still in the probabilistic (ie undetermined) state. A superposition is what exists before a pesky observer gets curious and causes the wave function to collapse. A superposition, by definition, means multiple outcomes are possible and undetermined. How is it possible? Well, it's possible because it makes accurate predictions about the world around us. Superpositions are not just a thought experiment, they're not some theoretical abstract concept that only makes sense on paper. The Schrodinger wave function makes many predictable, measurable, verifiable predictions about particle interactions and is arguably at the very heart if what makes all chemistry work.
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j2f2826 wrote
Reply to comment by MyFavDinoIsDrinker in ELI5: If penicillin became the pinnacle antibiotic why are many of us now allergic? by stealth941
Not exactly, allergies are when the immune system responds to a molecule as though it is a pathogen. An autoimmune disease is when our immune system recognizes some portion of ourself as a pathogen You just blended together autoimmune diseases and allergies, and they are two very different things.
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j2dsyin wrote
We use half life because, quote simply, that's how the laws of thermodynamics work in chemistry. I know that's kind of an unsatisfying answer, but answering why it works that way is kind of like asking why radioactive elements decay in a half-life fashion.
When reactions generate a half life, it becomes very difficult to say precisely when the reaction will stop proceeding entirely. Additionally, even if you knew precisely how long it would take, a large percentage of that time would be taken by the tail end of the reaction, where blood levels of the drug are so low they are ineffective.
In short, we use half life because it gives the amount of time that the concentration of the drug is in your system is at the level we need it to be for it to be beneficial and do its thing.
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j2apput wrote
Reply to comment by DjHalk45 in eli5: why does hot coffee erupt when add brown sugar? by DjHalk45
Ahhhhh, I then yes as the top comment mentions what's happening is you're superheating the coffee. In order for water to boil, there needs to be something called a nucleation site, or a place for the water vapor bubbles to form in the liquid. If there are no nucleation sites, a liquid can actually get heated to well over its boiling temperature. Then, when we introduce nucleation sites, the liquid boils RAPIDLY and VIOLENTLY. Surface imperfections act as nucleation sites, but glass and ceramic are both very smooth. In the chemistry lab, when we heat liquids in glass, we add a boiling chip to ensure the can boil properly and doesn't get superheated.
So, short answer, try adding the sugar before you put it in the microwave! Or microwave for less time, you are over heating your water
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j2ald51 wrote
Reply to comment by DjHalk45 in eli5: why does hot coffee erupt when add brown sugar? by DjHalk45
How are you making you coffee very hot? What is the heat source, and where is the coffee when you add the brown sugar?
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j2al1m6 wrote
Reply to comment by ThenaCykez in ELI5: 1.5 liters of softdrink (coca cola) 1.5 kg as well? by kz21n
I want to expand on this. 1.5L of water weighs 1.5kg by definition. The original definition of the mL was the cubic volume of 1g of pure water at 20°C. So it's is not a coincidence that these numbers are the same, or that the density of pure water is 1.0000, it is so BY DEFINITION.
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j2akqbe wrote
Reply to comment by [deleted] in ELI5: 1.5 liters of softdrink (coca cola) 1.5 kg as well? by kz21n
True, however can be calculated from volume by using the density of the substance.
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j2akj0l wrote
Reply to comment by Pocok5 in ELI5: 1.5 liters of softdrink (coca cola) 1.5 kg as well? by kz21n
😂
ScienceIsSexy420 t1_j6hz368 wrote
Reply to comment by brandalfthebaked in eli5 Im not a parent to know this by sillycuzwhynot1998
Cola and Mountain Dew impersonators, yes. Not in Lemon-Lime sodas or ginger ales. But the question was about sugar, not caffeine.